I'm posting one puzzle, riddle, math, or statistical problem a day. Try to answer each one and post your answers in the comments section. I'll post the answer the next day. Even if you have the same answer as someone else, feel free to put up your answer, too!
Thursday, April 05, 2007
You think you know baseball?
In a major league baseball game, a pitcher faced only 27 batters. Every batter he faced, he struck out. He allowed no hits and no runs, yet his team lost 4-0. How could this be?
Well, one way would be passed balls on strike three. In baseball, if you swing at the third strike and it gets by the catcher, you can run to first. He could steal bases from there.
ah, but then he'd have to face more than 27 batters, since he'd get credit for the strike-outs and wouldn't get credited with any earned runs, but the batters wouldn't be out. there must have been a relief pitcher involved here...
Yeah, the question doesn't specify that he pitched the entire game.
It's even easier this way:
He pitched 9 innings, faced the minimum 27 batters, struck them all out, allowed no hits or runs, but at the end of 9 innings, the game was scoreless. In the 10th inning, he was relieved, and the new pitcher allowed 4 runs (in any fashion), and his team lost. That still meets the criteria in the question.
You want a real baseball brain-teaser? Try this one, which I came up with myself. Nobody has ever gotten it:
Under what circumstances can the same batter, while following all appropriate Major League Baseball rules, complete two full at-bats consecutively, for the same team in the same game?
Under what circumstances can the same batter, while following all appropriate Major League Baseball rules, complete two full at-bats consecutively, for the same team in the same game?
I am not sure about, "full at-bats", but with a count of 3&2, two outs, and a man on first. The pitcher throws out the guy on first base, making the third out, inning over. The batter comes up the next inning with a count of 0-0.
Nope, all of your ideas so far are wrong, because the first at-bat is incomplete and gets wiped out when the inning ends. The same batter would come up next inning with a fresh count and only one at-bat would be recorded in the box score.
The answer comes from a situation if a batter bats out o turn in the batting order. It happened a couple of years ago with the Royals. David DeJesus usually batted leadoff for them and thus he went up to bat first in a game and doubled. But then the opposing manager pointed out that Angel Berroa was supposed to bat first according to that day's lineup. Therefore, the runner was out (and, incidentally, in the box score the out is attributed to Berroa), and the next batter comes up (according to MLB rules on batting out of turn.) Who was the next batter? DeJesus again, who was the regularly scheduled batter. So this time he flew out, completing his second consecutive at-bat. There are many other crazy scenarios that can occur when players bat out of turn.
I never would have thought of that. Isn't that interesting. I remember in little league batting out of order would occur occasionally, but I don't remember how it all works out, rule wise.
Regarding Andrew's question: If batter #1 has a complete at-bat, then the next 8 batters are walked or hit by pitch or otherwise have their potential at-bat not scored, then #1 has another complete at-bat, his two at-bats are technically consecutive.
the first batter to get out doesn't get credit for the at bat so how can one consider that an at bat? when he comes up for the second time he is actually getting his only at bat which may be consecutive but doesn't get counted as an at bat by MLB rules.
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Well, one way would be passed balls on strike three. In baseball, if you swing at the third strike and it gets by the catcher, you can run to first. He could steal bases from there.
ReplyDeleteah, but then he'd have to face more than 27 batters, since he'd get credit for the strike-outs and wouldn't get credited with any earned runs, but the batters wouldn't be out. there must have been a relief pitcher involved here...
ReplyDeleteYeah, the question doesn't specify that he pitched the entire game.
ReplyDeleteIt's even easier this way:
He pitched 9 innings, faced the minimum 27 batters, struck them all out, allowed no hits or runs, but at the end of 9 innings, the game was scoreless. In the 10th inning, he was relieved, and the new pitcher allowed 4 runs (in any fashion), and his team lost. That still meets the criteria in the question.
You want a real baseball brain-teaser? Try this one, which I came up with myself. Nobody has ever gotten it:
ReplyDeleteUnder what circumstances can the same batter, while following all appropriate Major League Baseball rules, complete two full at-bats consecutively, for the same team in the same game?
Or, he came in as a relief pitcher in the top of first inning with no outs after the starting pitcher had already given up four runs!
ReplyDeleteAndrew, isn't that possible if the third out occurs on the field?
Andrew:
ReplyDeleteUnder what circumstances can the same batter, while following all appropriate Major League Baseball rules, complete two full at-bats consecutively, for the same team in the same game?
I am not sure about, "full at-bats", but with a count of 3&2, two outs, and a man on first. The pitcher throws out the guy on first base, making the third out, inning over. The batter comes up the next inning with a count of 0-0.
I'd agree with Mr. Don. So there are a large number of answers to this one, I guess...
ReplyDeleteNope, all of your ideas so far are wrong, because the first at-bat is incomplete and gets wiped out when the inning ends. The same batter would come up next inning with a fresh count and only one at-bat would be recorded in the box score.
ReplyDeleteTry again!
Does anybody want the answer? I can post it.
ReplyDeleteI want the answer, please post it!
ReplyDeleteThe answer comes from a situation if a batter bats out o turn in the batting order. It happened a couple of years ago with the Royals. David DeJesus usually batted leadoff for them and thus he went up to bat first in a game and doubled. But then the opposing manager pointed out that Angel Berroa was supposed to bat first according to that day's lineup. Therefore, the runner was out (and, incidentally, in the box score the out is attributed to Berroa), and the next batter comes up (according to MLB rules on batting out of turn.) Who was the next batter? DeJesus again, who was the regularly scheduled batter. So this time he flew out, completing his second consecutive at-bat. There are many other crazy scenarios that can occur when players bat out of turn.
ReplyDeleteI never would have thought of that. Isn't that interesting. I remember in little league batting out of order would occur occasionally, but I don't remember how it all works out, rule wise.
ReplyDeleteThanks, Andrew!
Passed balls on strike 3s and the game only last 5 innings.... that's a considered a complete game
ReplyDeleteTrue, a game doesn't have to be 9 innings.
ReplyDeleteRegarding Andrew's question: If batter #1 has a complete at-bat, then the next 8 batters are walked or hit by pitch or otherwise have their potential at-bat not scored, then #1 has another complete at-bat, his two at-bats are technically consecutive.
the first batter to get out doesn't get credit for the at bat so how can one consider that an at bat? when he comes up for the second time he is actually getting his only at bat which may be consecutive but doesn't get counted as an at bat by MLB rules.
ReplyDeleteThe Team he was facing reached on errors
ReplyDelete